There are two letters (epistles) in our New Testament that bear the name of the Apostle Peter: 1 Peter and 2 Peter. But on what basis do we attribute these letters to the leader of the Apostles? Sure, both epistles bear his name but is there any other internal or external evidence that the Apostle Peter that we read of in the Gospels is the author of the two epistles that bear his name. Could the name be pseudonymous? Does it matter whether the Apostle is the author or someone else?
To answer these questions, and more, I intend to proceed by laying out the internal evidence, external evidence, objections (from strongest to weakest) to Petrine authorship, and proposed solutions to such objections.
Internal Evidence
Obviously the first internal evidence for Petrine Authorship is found in the opening verse: “Peter an apostle of Jesus Christ…” (1Pet. 1:1) There are, as I see it, four possible ways to understand this opening: a.) Peter refers to the very Peter of the canonical Gospels who was an apostle of Jesus Christ; b.) This is pseudonymous writing intended to deceive the audience into believing that the author is the Peter of the Gospels; c.) this is a pseudonymous writing that would have been understood by its original audience to be such; or d.) this is a textual addition/alteration. I will address each of these in reverse order. Could this designation of the author as the Apostle Peter be a textual addition or alteration? (I am not a textual critic and will therefore be leaning heavily on the study of others on this topic.) It seems very unlikely that this would be the case. Out of all of my commentaries on this epistle, only one addresses this possibility. This would seem to indicate that while some may hold to this option, it is not widely held. D. E. Hiebert notes that:
Some argue that 1 Peter was originally an anonymous homily beginning with “Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ” (1:3, ASV), that it circulated as an anonymous treatise during the second century, and that late in the second century, when the canon was forming, Peter’s name was attached to guarantee its apostolicity. A later editor added the opening salutation (1:1-2) and the conclusion (5:12-14), thus giving it the sanction of an apostolic letter. Supposedly, that explains why 1 Peter was known to the early patristic writers but was not quoted by them as Petrine.
It seems that all of the support for such a view boil down to mere speculation. No appeal that I have seen has been made to a manuscript devoid of 1:1-2 and 5:12-14. The fact that early patristic writers did not always quote portions of this epistle AND state that the quotation was from Peter need not trouble us. As Hiebert points out Clement often quoted without naming his sources. We ought not to read back Kate Turabian’s A Manual for Writers of Term Papers, Theses, and Dissertations into the Patristic era and expect them to properly footnote every quotation.
Hiebert also makes a good point in showing that the early church did not feel the necessity to append an author’s name to the anonymous book of Hebrews.
Therefore, I agree with Beare that “This hypothesis… has no positive evidence to support it, and very little to commend it.”
In the next post I shall consider the issue of pseudepigraphy and by so doing will address options b. and c. from above.
